most recent 30 from latin.stackexchange.com 2025-08-07T09:14:55Z https://latin.stackexchange.com/feeds/tag/morphology+spelling https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/4.0/rdf https://latin.stackexchange.com/q/20622 5 Sebastian Koppehel https://latin.stackexchange.com/users/6567 2025-08-07T14:54:38Z 2025-08-07T19:06:53Z

<p>As far as I can see, <em>every</em> Latin word that starts with <em>vu-</em> has a collateral form starting with <em>vo-</em>. It's not many, but these at least: <em>vulgus, vulnus, vulpes, vultur, vultus,</em> and indeed <em>vulva</em>, where <em>volva</em> seems to be the main form; plus a few words derived from these, like <em>vulticulus, vultuosus,</em> etc.</p> <p>Is there a particular reason why this is so? Or is this a coincidence?</p>

https://latin.stackexchange.com/q/9140 16 Draconis https://latin.stackexchange.com/users/406 2025-08-07T05:21:56Z 2025-08-07T17:14:19Z

<p>There are a few instances in Latin where words are spelled with two vowels next to each other, in hiatus: <em>filii</em> "sons", <em>metuunt</em> "they fear".</p> <p>Now, the last words of the Emperor Julian II are normally quoted as <em>vicisti, Galilaee</em>. The second word here is the vocative of <em>Galilaeus</em>, "man from Galilaea".</p> <p>However, the ending <em>-ee</em> looks distinctly <em>wrong</em> to my eye. Is this sequence <em>ee</em> something found in Classical Latin? Or does it only appear in Later Latin? (Notably, common words like <em>meus</em> and <em>deus</em> don't take vocatives in <em>-e</em>.)</p>

https://latin.stackexchange.com/q/4901 12 Joonas Ilmavirta https://latin.stackexchange.com/users/79 2025-08-07T07:01:46Z 2025-08-07T00:29:52Z

<p>It seems quite clear that <em>secundus</em> comes from <em>sequundus</em>, a gerundive of <em>sequi</em>. But why did <em>-quu-</em> become <em>-cu-</em>? This change is not universal, since some Latin words do preserve <em>-quu-</em>, at least the end of a word (consider <em>equus</em> and <em>aequus</em> for example). I suppose this sound or spelling change is behind the dative <em>cui</em> and genitive <em>cuius</em> of <em>quis</em>. Is there a rule that could help me predict when a <em>-quu-</em> becomes <em>-cu-</em>? Are there notable examples or exceptions I should be aware of?</p>

https://latin.stackexchange.com/q/4728 13 Catomic https://latin.stackexchange.com/users/1133 2025-08-07T09:40:42Z 2025-08-07T20:36:53Z

<p>Why does <em>dō</em> conjugate differently from other first conjugation verbs in that you find a short <em>a</em> where otherwise you might expect a long <em>ā</em>?</p> <p><strong>BACKGROUND</strong></p> <p>Examples:</p> <blockquote> <p>amāre (dare), amārī (darī), amātūrus (datūrus), amāns (dans), amātus (datus), amābit (dabit), amābitur (dabitur), amātō (datō), amābat (dabat), amābātur (dabātur), amāret (daret), amārētur (darētur)</p> </blockquote> <p>The only other irregularity of this sort I have found so far is <em>stō</em> having <em>statūrus</em> (not <strike><em>stātūrus</em></strike>).</p> <p>At least according to <a href="https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/do#Latin" rel="noreferrer">en.wiktionary.org</a> (where I got those forms), it seems <em>amō</em> sets the pattern for most first conjugation verbs.</p> <p>I thought there might be an interesting story of derivation about <em>dō</em>. Thanks.</p>

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